Posted by Broox on January 16, 19100 at 20:29:09:
I'm having a disagreement about the precise definiton of Newton's 1st Law of Motion.
I said that "a body moving with constant velocity cannot change it's velocity unless acted on by an outside force."
My teacher counted this wrong, saying that I didn't mention anything about a body being at rest.
While this is true, does this make my definition incorrect?